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The original was posted on /r/askhistorians by /u/ElRama1 on 2023-08-07 23:33:21+00:00.

Good evening, this is my first post on this reddit sub, so I apologize in advance if this question has already been asked: but why, when talking about the atrocities committed against the Jewish people, their expulsion from Spain in 1492 is so quoted? Was it really that bad, or does the anti-Spanish bias paint it worse than it really was?