Was in a conversation with someone who argued that slaves don’t produce surplus value, that surplus value is unique to a worker-owner relation as in liberalism. Is anyone familiar with this idea? It didn’t make a great deal of sense to me. One would think that slaves would give you as much if not more surplus value than workers you have to pay.

  • RedQuestionAsker2 [he/him, she/her]@hexbear.net
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    1 year ago

    Agree with your take here.

    It could probably be argued that it’s not surplus value in a strictly academic sense, but it is in a very practical sense.

    In this case, it’s a distinction without a difference, and I can’t imagine the benefit of making that distinction.